Hematology - Pathology (Part 1) Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Hematology - Pathology (Part 1) Deck (110)
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1
Q

Name two diseases associated with Heinz bodies.

A

-Thalassemia and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

2
Q

What type of red blood cell morphology would you see in the peripheral blood that is associated with Heinz bodies?

A

Bite cells; the spleen bites off the precipitated hemoglobin in the cells

3
Q

What is the role of the mean corpuscular volume in an anemia workup?

A

A mean corpuscular volume < 80 fL is a microcytic anemia; a volume > 100 fL is a macrocytic anemia; a volume between those values is a normocytic anemia

4
Q

What are three etiologies of iron-deficiency anemia?

A

Loss (chronic bleeding), malnutrition or poor absorption, and increased demand (such as in pregnancy)

5
Q

What biochemical pathway is interrupted in iron deficiency anemia?

A

The formation of heme (which requires iron)

6
Q

You see a patient with tongue inflammation and atrophy, dysphagia for solids, and a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL; what is the cause of his anemia?

A

This patient has Plummer-Vinson syndrome, the triad of esophageal webs, atrophic glossitis, and iron deficiency anemia

7
Q

What disease, common in Asia and Africa, is caused by deletions of the hemoglobin chain gene?

A

-thalassemia; gene deletions result in decreased globin synthesis

8
Q

What would you see on hemoglobin electrophoresis in a fetus with deletions of all four globin genes?

A

Hemoglobin Barts (γ4); this is a lethal condition and will result in hydrops fetalis

9
Q

A fetus undergoes amniocentesis and is found to have deletions of all four globin genes; what is the likely outcome?

A

Hydrops fetalis; deletion of four genes is incompatible with life

10
Q

What condition would you expect to see in a patient with a deletion of three of the four globin genes?

A

Symptomatic microcytic anemia due to -thalassemia; known as hemoglobin H disease (4)

11
Q

A mother is concerned that her child has deletions of two globin genes; what symptoms will likely manifest?

A

Deletion of one or two globin genes is not associated with symptomatic anemia

12
Q

What disease, seen in people that live in the Mediterranean region, is caused by point mutations in hemoglobin chain genes?

A

-Thalassemia; typically these mutations are at splicing sites and in the promoter regions

13
Q

What type of mutation is present in a patient with -thalassemia minor?

A

There is a mutation in one gene (heterozygote), causing underproduction of globin; the mutation is often in a promoter or splice site

14
Q

What symptoms and laboratory findings are consistent with -thalassemia minor?

A

This condition is asymptomatic, and diagnosed by an hemoglobin A2 > 3.5% on electrophoresis

15
Q

What treatment is indicated in a patient with -thalassemia major?

A

Because both genes are mutated, there is no chain production and the patient requires many blood transfusions

16
Q

What is a long-term adverse effect of the treatment of -thalassemia major?

A

Iron overload (secondary hemochromotosis) due to repeated blood transfusions

17
Q

What x-ray finding should raise your suspicion of -thalassemia major?

A

Bone marrow expansion, which can be seen as increased marrow space, bone deformities (chipmunk facies), and a crew-cut appearance of the skull x-ray

18
Q

What should you see on hemoglobin electrophoresis in a patient with -thalassemia (major and minor) that, as in infants, increases the blood’s affinity for oxygen?

A

Increased fetal hemoglobin (2; γ2)

19
Q

What disease do you expect to see in a child born to a father homozygous for hemoglobin S and a mother with -thalassemia major?

A

This child will be a hemoglobin S/-thalassemia heterozygote, which presents with mild or moderate sickle cell disease based on chain production

20
Q

Lead poisoning disrupts which two enzymes involved in the formation of hemoglobin?

A

Lead blocks ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase, which decreases the synthesis of heme

21
Q

What is the cause of basophilic stippling associated with lead poisoning?

A

Lead disrupts the degradation of RNA, which builds up and stains with basic dyes

22
Q

What is the cause of hereditary sideroblastic anemia?

A

A mutation in the δ-aminolevulinic acid gene

23
Q

What is the inheritance pattern associated with a mutation in the δ-aminolevulinic acid gene?

A

This mutation, which causes a hereditary sideroblastic anemia, is found on the X chromosome

24
Q

What is the treatment for sideroblastic anemia due to a mutation in δ-ALA synthase?

A

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

25
Q

Name two reversible causes of sideroblastic anemia

A

Alcohol use and lead poisoning

26
Q

A patient has an elevated serum iron and ferritin, and a normal total iron-binding capacity; what diagnosis should you suspect if a bone marrow aspirate shows blast forms of erythrocytes that have a dark ring around the nucleus?

A

Sideroblastic anemia; the aspirate describes the iron-laden mitochondria that create the appearance of a ringed sideroblast

27
Q

Why is the mean corpuscular volume increased in megaloblastic macrocytic anemia?

A

There is a defect in DNA synthesis: the nucleus takes longer to mature than the cytosol and thus there is excess cytoplasm, creating a megaloblast; this is caused by B12 and folate deficiency

28
Q

A patient has anemia with a mean corpuscular volume of 110 fL and glossitis and on the peripheral smear you note hypersegmented neutrophils; what are the two possible causes of this condition?

A

B12 or folate deficiency; both present with these features

29
Q

What laboratory test (other than a vitamin level) will distinguish between B12 and folate deficiency as a cause of megaloblastic anemia?

A

Methylmalonic acid is elevated in B12 deficiency but normal in folate deficiency; homocysteine is elevated in both deficiencies

30
Q

What is the homocysteine level in patients with B12 and folate deficiency?

A

Both B12 and folate deficiencies have elevated homocysteine levels

31
Q

What kind of anemia is seen in a patient with poor dietary vitamin intake?

A

Macrocytic anemia, due to B12 or folate deficiency (remember that alcoholics are also often malnourished)

32
Q

Why might a patient with Crohn’s disease have a macrocytic anemia?

A

Crohn’s disease often affects the terminal ileum, the site of vitamin B12 absorption; severe or extensive disease may cause malabsorption of folate as well

33
Q

Name two drugs than can cause a folate deficiency and macrocytic anemia.

A

Methotrexate or trimethoprim, both of which interfere with folate metabolism

34
Q

Name two conditions in which an increased demand for folate can result in a macrocytic anemia.

A

Pregnancy (folate is needed for fetal neural tube development) or hemolytic anemias (folate is needed to replenish hemolyzed blood)

35
Q

What autoimmune disorder can result in a macrocytic anemia?

A

Pernicious anemia, which results in vitamin B12 deficiency and loss of intrinsic factor

36
Q

Which parasite can cause vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum, a tapeworm found in fish

37
Q

What symptoms can distinguish macrocytic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency and macrocytic anemia caused by folate deficiency?

A

Neurologic symptoms (combined subacute degeneration) are seen in vitamin B12 deficiency but not in folate deficiency because of the role B12 plays in fatty acid pathways

38
Q

Name three ways that heavy alcohol use can cause macrocytic anemia.

A

As a result of vitamin B12 or folate deficiency (malnutrition), liver disease, or by directly affecting red blood cells and causing bone marrow suppression

39
Q

What change in mean corpuscular volume would you expect in an otherwise healthy patient who has had moderate to severe blood loss?

A

Increased mean corpuscular volume, because the patient will compensate with reticulocytosis, which have slightly higher mean corpuscular volumes than mature red blood cells

40
Q

What kind of anemia is associated with congenital deficiencies in purine or pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Macrocytic anemia (eg, orotic aciduria) because of the relative delay in nucleus maturation compared to cytoplasm

41
Q

Name five medications that can cause macrocytic anemia.

A

Methotrexate, trimethoprim, fluorouracil, zidovudine, hydroxyurea

42
Q

How are normocytic, normochromic hemolytic anemias further classified?

A

First by cause: intrinsic vs extrinsic to the red blood cell; and then by location: intravascular vs extravascular

43
Q

Name three causes of normocytic, normochromic anemia that are not due to hemolysis.

A

Anemia of chronic disease, aplastic anemia (bone marrow failure), renal disease (decreased erythropoietin)

44
Q

Name six causes of normocytic, normochromic hemolytic anemia that are intrinsic to the red blood cell.

A

Hereditary spherocytosis, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiency, sickle cell anemia, hemoglobin C defect, and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

45
Q

Name three causes of normocytic, normochromic hemolytic anemia that are extrinsic to the red blood cell.

A

Autoimmune hemolysis, microangiopathies like disseminated intravascular coagulation or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura–hemolytic uremic syndrome, or infections

46
Q

What is a cause of normocytic, normochromic hemolytic anemia that is intrinsic to the red blood cell and occurs in the intravascular space?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

47
Q

Name two causes of normocytic, normochromic hemolytic anemia that are extrinsic to the red blood cell and occur in the extravascular space.

A

Autoimmune hemolysis due to warm agglutinins (not cold) or microangiopathies like disseminated intravascular coagulation or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura–hemolytic uremic syndrome

48
Q

Generally, hemolysis that is intrinsic to the red blood cell occurs in the _____ (intravascular/extravascular) space, whereas hemolysis extrinsic to the red blood cell occurs in the _____ (intravascular/extravascular) space.

A

Extravascular; intravascular. Notable exceptions include paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (intrinsic intravascular) and warm agglutinin autoimmune or microangiopathic hemolysis (extrinsic extravascular)

49
Q

How do chronic inflammatory processes cause anemia?

A

The inflammation increases hepcidin levels, which cause macrophages to retain iron, preventing heme from forming

50
Q

What are the iron, ferritin, and total iron-binding capacity levels in a patient with anemia of chronic disease?

A

Decreased iron and total iron-binding capacity, with increased ferritin

51
Q

A patient with pancytopenia (anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia) has fatty infiltrates on bone marrow biopsy; what is the diagnosis?

A

Aplastic anemia; the marrow is depleted, but the cell morphology will be normal

52
Q

What are four general etiologies of aplastic anemia?

A

Radiation or drugs, viral infections, Fanconi;s anemia, or idiopathic aplastic anemia

53
Q

Name four drugs that can result in aplastic anemia.

A

Benzene, chloramphenicol (eg, gray baby syndrome), antimetabolites, and alkylating agents (chemotherapy)

54
Q

What are four viral infections that can cause aplastic anemia?

A

Parvovirus B19 (especially in patients with sickle cell anemia), HIV, Epstein-Barr virus, and viral hepatitis

55
Q

What mechanism of aplastic anemia is seen in patients with Fanconi’s anemia?

A

These patients have an inherited defect in DNA repair

56
Q

What are two possible explanations for aplastic anemia that is considered idiopathic?

A

There may be an autoimmune etiology or a primary defect in the stem cell itself

57
Q

A patient presents with petechiae and bleeding from the gums, fatigue and pallor, and has had several recent infections; a bone marrow aspirate is dry making you suspect what process?

A

Aplastic anemia; this patient has symptoms suggestive of thrombocytopenia, anemia, and neutropenia, which are confirmed by the hypocellular aspirate

58
Q

You suspect that a patient has aplastic anemia due to an autoimmune process; what treatment can you pursue?

A

Immune suppression using antithymocyte globulin or cyclosporin

59
Q

Name three treatments for aplastic anemia that can be tried when other interventions have failed.

A

Red blood cell and platelet transfusion, dosing with granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor or granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, or allogeneic bone marrow transplantation

60
Q

Why do patients with end-stage renal disease have normocytic, normochromic anemia?

A

The kidneys normally produce erythropoietin; in renal failure the loss of erythropoietin results in anemia, which is amenable to treatment with exogenous erythropoietin

61
Q

What mutations are present in hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Ankyrin, band 3.1, or spectrin mutations; each normally interacts with the red blood cell skeleton and plasma membrane to preserve normal morphology

62
Q

What organ is responsible for the anemia seen in hereditary spherocytosis?

A

The spleen; the small, inflexible membrane causes the spleen to remove affected red blood cells prematurely

63
Q

What acute process should you suspect in a patient with red blood cells that have no central pallor, increased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration, and increased red blood cell distribution width if he contracts a parvovirus B19 infection?

A

Aplastic crisis; this patient likely has hereditary spherocytosis and is predisposed to aplastic anemia during parvovirus infection due to his increased reliance on erythropoiesis

64
Q

You see a patient with hereditary spherocytosis but no splenomegaly on exam; if he had Howell-Jolly bodies on peripheral smear what is the reason for your exam and lab findings?

A

This patient has likely had a splenectomy; this treatment can be used if the anemia in hereditary spherocytosis is severe and refractory to treatment

65
Q

What lab test should you order to confirm the diagnosis in a patient who has spherocytes on the peripheral smear and splenomegaly on exam?

A

Osmotic fragility test; in hereditary spherocytosis the red blood cells will lyse more easily because of decreased membrane flexibility

66
Q

What is the inheritance pattern seen in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive; therefore, symptoms are usually seen in males

67
Q

What molecule is depleted in the red blood cells of patients that have glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, leading to anemia?

A

Glutathione; without glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, there is a depletion of glutathione, which results in red blood cell susceptibility to oxidative stress

68
Q

A patient develops anemia, indirect hyperbilirubinemia, and jaundice after eating fava beans; what condition should you suspect?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency; fava beans, along with sulfa drugs and infections, are well-documented causes of oxidant stress

69
Q

What is the diagnosis in a patient who has Heinz bodies on the peripheral smear and multiple bite cells?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

70
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of pyruvate kinase deficiency?

A

Autosomal recessive

71
Q

A newborn is born with hemolytic anemia and you determine that there is no blood group or Rh antigen difference between the baby and mother; what congenital error in metabolism may be the cause?

A

Pyruvate kinase deficiency, which causes low adenosine triphosphate in red blood cells and a resultant rigidity of the membranes

72
Q

You see an African-American patient who has crescent-shaped cells on the peripheral smear; what is the cell and what is the prevalence of this disease?

A

This is a sickle cell; the trait (heterozygotes) occurs in 8% of African-Americans, whereas 0.2% have sickle cell disease (homozygotes)

73
Q

What x-ray finding in sickle cell anemia may also be seen in thalassemia?

A

The crew cut skull radiograph, due to bone marrow expansion, is seen in both conditions

74
Q

Why will a newborn with sickle cell disease initially be asymptomatic?

A

The newborn still has increased levels of hemoglobin F and will be asymptomatic until his hemoglobin F is replaced by hemoglobin S

75
Q

What is the mutation that causes sickle cell disease?

A

Glutamic acid to valine in the globin chain

76
Q

What happens to the hemoglobin in patients with sickle cell disease in the presence of low oxygen concentrations?

A

Without oxygen, the hemoglobin has an exposed charge that causes precipitation and formation of long polymers of hemoglobin that give the characteristic sickle shape to the red blood cell

77
Q

What evolutionary advantage may explain the high prevalence of sickle cell trait in the population?

A

This mutation allows resistance to malaria, an intracellular parasite that infects erythrocytes

78
Q

Name six complications seen in homozygotes for sickle cell disease.

A

Aplastic crisis (parvovirus infection), autosplenectomy, Salmonella osteomyelitis, painful vaso-occlusive crises, renal papillary necrosis, and splenic sequestration crisis

79
Q

What vaccinations should be given to patients with sickle cell disease?

A

Vaccinations to encapsulated organisms because of the increased risk of sepsis after autosplenectomy: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis

80
Q

What treatment options are available for patients with sickle cell disease?

A

Patients can be treated with hydroxyurea, which increases hemoglobin F concentration, or may undergo allogeneic bone marrow transplantation

81
Q

What kind of anemia is seen in patients with hemoglobin C disease?

A

Intrinsic normocytic hemolytic anemia; this condition is due to a mutation in the globin chain (different from hemoglobin S in sickle cell disease)

82
Q

What is the significance of the hemoglobin C mutation?

A

Patients with hemoglobin S and C mutations have milder sickle cell disease than homozygotes for hemoglobin S

83
Q

Why does the hemolysis seen in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria occur in the intravascular space?

A

There is complement-mediated hemolysis, an intravascular process due to decreased levels of decay accelerating factor; decay accelerating factor normally prevents the membrane attack complex from destroying red blood cells

84
Q

What laboratory test would be abnormal in a patient with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

A

Increased urine hemosiderin; the hemolysis occurs all day, but urine accumulates overnight and thus appears darker the next day

85
Q

What type of antibody is involved in autoimmune hemolytic anemia due to warm agglutinins?

A

Immunoglobulin G (remember: Warm weather is GGGreat)

86
Q

Name three conditions that are associated with immunoglobulin G-mediated autoimmune hemolysis.

A

Systemic lupus erythematous, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, and drug reactions (for instance, -methyldopa)

87
Q

What type of antibody is involved in autoimmune hemolytic anemia due to cold agglutinins?

A

Immunoglobulin M (remember: Cold ice cream is MMM); cold agglutinins trigger anemia when exposed to cold temperatures

88
Q

What are two infections that can present with hemolytic anemia due to cold agglutinins?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection or infectious mononucleosis

89
Q

What type of hemolytic process causes erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

Warm agglutinin-mediated immune reaction; remember that this is caused by maternal immunoglobulin G antibodies against the fetal Rh group

90
Q

What does a positive direct Coombs’ test represent?

A

A direct Coombs; test adds anti-immunoglobulin G antibodies to the patient;s red blood cells; if agglutination occurs, it indicates that the patient;s red blood cells are covered with immunoglobulin G antibodies

91
Q

What does a positive indirect Coombs’ test represent?

A

An indirect Coombs’ test adds normal red blood cells to the patient;s serum; if agglutination occurs, it indicates that the patient has anti-red blood cell antibodies in serum

92
Q

You note schistocytes or helmet cells on the peripheral smear of a patient; what mechanism causes this deformity?

A

This red blood cell morphology is seen in microangiopathic hemolytic anemias, thought to be due to damage as red blood cells pass through a narrow or obstructed vessel lumen

93
Q

What are four conditions that may be the cause of helmet cells or schistocytes on a patient’s peripheral blood smear?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura–hemolytic uremic syndrome, systemic lupus erythematous, or malignant hypertension

94
Q

What are two cardiac pathologies that can cause hemolytic anemia?

A

Severe aortic stenosis, or any mechanical valve, due to the shearing and mechanical destruction of red blood cells

95
Q

Name two infections that cause hemolysis but are not associated with agglutinins.

A

Intracellular pathogens, like malaria and babesia, can lyse the erythrocyte and cause hemolytic anemia

96
Q

What are the relevant lab values in a patient with anemia of chronic disease?

A

The serum iron and total iron-binding capacity are low, whereas the ferritin is elevated; the percent transferrin saturation is normal

97
Q

What are the relevant lab values in a patient with iron-deficiency anemia?

A

The serum iron and ferritin are low, whereas the total iron-binding capacity is elevated; the percent transferrin saturation is very low

98
Q

What are the relevant lab values for a patient with hemochromatosis?

A

The serum iron and ferritin are high and the total iron-binding capacity is low; the percent transferrin saturation is very high

99
Q

What changes are seen in serum iron studies for a patient who is either pregnant or using oral contraceptive pills?

A

The serum iron and ferritin are normal; the total iron-binding capacity is elevated due to estrogen exposure (increased binding proteins); the percent transferrin saturation is low

100
Q

What is the role of ferritin in the body?

A

It is the primary iron storage protein of the body

101
Q

What is the relationship between transferrin and total iron-binding capacity?

A

Total iron-binding capacity is an indirect measure of transferrin, which transports iron in the blood

102
Q

What is the evolutionary theory behind the etiology of anemia of chronic disease?

A

Pathogens need iron to thrive; sequestration of iron in macrophages may prevent pathogens from reproducing

103
Q

What pathologic process occurs if there is a defect in one of the steps of heme synthesis?

A

Porphyria, in which heme precursors accumulate and enter various bodily fluids

104
Q

Lead poisoning affects which two enzymes in the heme synthesis pathway?

A

Ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase are inhibited by lead

105
Q

What substrate of heme synthesis accumulates in the blood in lead poisoning?

A

Protoporphyrin

106
Q

A child presents with a microcytic anemia, gastrointestinal distress, and renal disease; she has developmental regression and basophilic stippling on red blood cells; what is the diagnosis?

A

These are the symptoms of lead poisoning, commonly seen when children are exposed to lead paint

107
Q

What are the differences in neurologic outcomes between adults and children with lead poisoning?

A

Adults typically have headaches, memory loss, and demyelination, whereas children typically have developmental delays

108
Q

What environmental exposures are common sources of lead poisoning in adults? In children?

A

Adults are exposed to lead in the workplace, such as a battery/ammunition/radiator factories, whereas children are exposed via lead paint

109
Q

A patient who recently started phenobarbital presents after a day at the beach where she had multiple alcoholic drinks with abdominal pain, polyneuropathy, an altered mental status. Her urine turns pink on standing. What is the diagnosis?

A

Acute intermittent porphyria (remember the five P’s: Painful abdomen, Pink urine, Polyneuropathy, Psychological disturbances, Precipitated by drugs [eg, phenobarbital or ethanol])

110
Q

What enzymatic defect is present in acute intermittent porphyria?

A

Porphobilinogen deaminase (also called uroporphyrinogen-I-synthase)